Miscellaneous <1900 (Alternate) History Thread

VVD0D95

Banned
I think that the easiest ways are to have Fernando II’s son with Germaine of Foix survive, separating the Aragon crowns and Castile crowns, and/or have Maximilian predecease Fernando II.
Hmm that could work with
Kill off Lajos II earlier. Maybe right after he marries Maria?
that also works
Make it that he doesn't have a choice? Grandpa Max dies first, which means Fernando will have the "excuse/justification" for Ferdinand to be his successor and marry Isabel of Portugal. Then Chuck has no other available Habsburg to offer to keep the terms of the Treaty of Vienna
that works. Mary Tudor perhaps marrying Brandon as otl
 
I think that the easiest ways are to have Fernando II’s son with Germaine of Foix survive, separating the Aragon crowns and Castile crowns, and/or have Maximilian predecease Fernando II.
Make it that he doesn't have a choice? Grandpa Max dies first, which means Fernando will have the "excuse/justification" for Ferdinand to be his successor and marry Isabel of Portugal. Then Chuck has no other available Habsburg to offer to keep the terms of the Treaty of Vienna
Neither of that would work in forcing Charles to accept a wedding who he had already refuted. Plus in the first case Charles would still be heir of Castile
 
Let's imagine; Spain kept Santo Domingo after 1821, but in 1870, it gave Cuba independence earlier than OTL, while it sold Santo Domingo and Puerto Rico to the US.... Which also bought the Danish Virgin Islands shortly before... Could this scenario have been possible?
PS: ITTL, France keeps Haiti....
 
How about instead of the Ottomans taking Constantinople and creating an empire, a descendant of Genghis Khan invades Anatolia and eventually takes the remnants of Byzantium for himself. What impacts would this have on the region?
 
Given how common I've seen alternate-history Germanies (let's say pre-WW2 divergence) make use of the Weimar/German Empire borders, how likely was it for Germany to adopt the Oder-Neisse border it has today?
Almost impossible. German political culture was so profoundly changed by WW2 that it became basically unrecognizable. No prewar German government of any ideology would have ceded the east without major blood-shed. Defending those areas was a major part of the national consciousness, and well into the OTL 70s the deal with Poland was seen as a betrayal by large parts of the population, especially those that lived in Pommern and Eastern Prussia.

You'll need to absolutely kick Germany's shit in for that to happen.
 
Was there a particular reason why the Carolingian Empire was split west/mid/east in Treaty of Verdun and not North/mid/south or three pizza-slices? or was it all down to the fact that the respective claiments had their powerbases in Bavaria, Italy and Aquitaine which are all relatively southern?
 
What about keeping Polabia having a Slavic or Polabian-speaking population while a majority of Silesia and Pomerania remaining having areas with heavier Polish/Silesian, and Kashubian majorities?
 
Probably not, since the politics of Central Asia (esp. Uzbeks) would have prevented such adventures. Humayun would have likely lost their domains. Mughals would have just been another flash-in-the-pan Timurid successor. If any ATL Akbar equivalent arises in Samarkand, he would have expanded towards Iran as the more natural target.
 

VVD0D95

Banned
Probably not, since the politics of Central Asia (esp. Uzbeks) would have prevented such adventures. Humayun would have likely lost their domains. Mughals would have just been another flash-in-the-pan Timurid successor. If any ATL Akbar equivalent arises in Samarkand, he would have expanded towards Iran as the more natural target.
So Babur takes Samarkand, Humayun maybe loses it or holds it. Akbar expands westward? That could be fun.
 
What if Korea conquered china in the 17th or 18th century ? Unlikely I know, but there is some tl with japan doing it, so seeing korea in this role would be interesting
 
What if Korea conquered china in the 17th or 18th century ? Unlikely I know, but there is some tl with japan doing it, so seeing korea in this role would be interesting
In order for nations to conquer China, they need one of two things
1. A technologically advanced military
2. A militaristic population which heavily cares for honour
As far as I know, 17th-18th century Korea lacks these qualities.
The only way I could think of a Korean conquest of China could occur is if Korea's entire society is structured around glory and conquest.
 
In order for nations to conquer China, they need one of two things
1. A technologically advanced military
2. A militaristic population which heavily cares for honour
As far as I know, 17th-18th century Korea lacks these qualities.
The only way I could think of a Korean conquest of China could occur is if Korea's entire society is structured around glory and conquest.
Maybe as a result of a Korean Manchuria? Have the many Koreans who settled in the area during the Yuan dynasty survive, grow to demographic pre-eminence, and eventually reunite with the Korean peninsula. Easiest way might be to keep the Red Turban Rebellion confined to southern China and have a Ming/whoever-(northern) Yuan border approximating the Song-Jin border of earlier centuries. As Northern Yuan collapses, Goryeo/post-Goryeo state unites with the northern Koreans and revamps itself by looking back to Goguryeo for inspiration. Perhaps northern China ends up conquered by another barbarian state (Oirats?) and as the Koreans push west, eventually come to see themselves as the heirs to China rather than a southern dynasty which is inept and decaying and northern dynasties without any history or prestige. So by the 17th century, Korea has conquered northern China and a few decades later conquers southern China and unites China once again under a new dynasty that has long since Sinicised.

The POD for this is going to be no later than the 1290s.
 
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