This is something I've been wondering about. Even if places like the Middle or Far East didn't have the scientific/social/whatever conditions to industrialise on their own, they should still have been able to at least copy industrial production methods once these had been invented. So why didn't they? Or, at least, why didn't they do so more? Surely the benefits of, e.g., being able to make lots of cheap, high-quality iron and steel would have been apparent, and at least in the early phases of industrialisation, the new innovations could have been adopted without radically changing society. Was it something to do with patent laws stopping inventions being spread widely, did the people of other areas simply not know enough about Europe to realise what was happening, or was there some other reason?
Bonus question: how can we get the rest of the world to industrialise faster? Not necessarily as fast as Europe (including European-derived countries, like the US), but fast enough to remain competitive and not get completely rolled over during the late 19th and early 20th centuries.
Bonus question: how can we get the rest of the world to industrialise faster? Not necessarily as fast as Europe (including European-derived countries, like the US), but fast enough to remain competitive and not get completely rolled over during the late 19th and early 20th centuries.