What would the effects of an absence of OTL's influx of refugees from European countries like Italy, Germany, Poland, Hungary etc. after the failed revolutions of 1848 mean for the USA? (Assume, for example, that 1848 is more successful.)
There would, of course, still be migration from Europe to North America. The promise of a new future, prosperity, gold etc. all played important roles, too. So, I wouldn't expect there not to be ANY migration, even out of Germany, Italy, Poland, Hungary etc.
But not a huge wave of political refugees and people generally very disillusioned with the way European states developed in 1850ff.
From the party political system of the US over settler dynamics, conflicts within and beyond the official member states of the Union, economic butterflies, ... - what do you think are the most plausible consequences of no Forty-Eighter migration?
There would, of course, still be migration from Europe to North America. The promise of a new future, prosperity, gold etc. all played important roles, too. So, I wouldn't expect there not to be ANY migration, even out of Germany, Italy, Poland, Hungary etc.
But not a huge wave of political refugees and people generally very disillusioned with the way European states developed in 1850ff.
From the party political system of the US over settler dynamics, conflicts within and beyond the official member states of the Union, economic butterflies, ... - what do you think are the most plausible consequences of no Forty-Eighter migration?